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I am currently working on Gasiorowicz's Quantum Physics. The writer says that since $\mathbf{L}^2$ and $L_z$ commute, we have simultaneous eigenket $|l,m\rangle$, and thus we can write \begin{align} \mathbf{L}^2|l,m\rangle & = \hbar l(l+1)|l,m\rangle \\ L_z |l,m\rangle & = \hbar m |l,m\rangle, \end{align} without any constraint for $l$ and $m$.

I don't understand why we can write the eigenvalues of $\mathbf{L}^2$ and $L_z$ to depend only on $l$ and $m$, respectively. Shouldn't we set the eigenvalue for $|l,m\rangle$ to be depending on both $l$ and $m$ to consider the most general situation?

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  • $\begingroup$ the eigenvalue for L^2 is wrong. You missed a factor of ℏ. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 13, 2021 at 1:36

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$|\ell,m\rangle$ is an eigenstate for $L^2$ with eigenvalue $\ell(\ell+1)\hbar$, and is also an eigenstate for $L_z$ with eigenvalue $m\hbar$.

There isn't "the eigenvalue for $|\ell,m\rangle$". It is just a state vector.

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  • $\begingroup$ Is it okay to set the eigenvalue of L^2 as hbar*l(l+1)? Is it because l(l+1) can cover all real numbers? $\endgroup$ Commented May 10, 2021 at 13:19
  • $\begingroup$ @이승우 There are proofs of this sort of thing, e.g. in Dirac's book. The eigenvalues of that operator are of the form l(l+1), which cannot cover all integers, as you may easily check. $\endgroup$ Commented May 10, 2021 at 14:08
  • $\begingroup$ @이승우 We are not "setting" anything. It comes directly from what $L^2$ is and the boundary conditions. $\endgroup$ Commented May 10, 2021 at 14:12
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    $\begingroup$ Oh, I see. They(l and m) are just eigenvalues of different operators, so we denote them with two different letters since they are simultaneous eigenstate of $L^2$ and $L_z$. Thank you for comments and answer! $\endgroup$ Commented May 11, 2021 at 3:13

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