I wonder whether the limit $ \hbar \rightarrow 0 $ in path integral is merely technical stuff when we explain the classical limit of quantum mechanics, or there may be any physical meaning or sense behind it.
When we deal with path integral, it's usually said that we obtain the classical Lagrange equation if we take a limit $ \hbar \rightarrow 0 $. But what on earth is the condition that we can take such a limit? I have found some discussion in here, but I couldn't find any satisfying one. I found this one gives some clue, but I think it's a bit mathematical content and does not help answer my question directly. Rather, I want to find a more physics-oriented answer, especially in the context of open quantum systems.
The reason why I have the open system in my mind is the following: when we do experiments, we always think of accuracy problems. For example, when the experiment considers small scale or high energy, we may think of quantum correction to the classical result. But this consideration is pertaining not only to the observed phenomena but also to the external environment such as experiment apparatus. Moreover, I prefer to solve this problem in path integral formalism because I think this approach may have more benefit when discussing open QFT.
In other areas of physics, one assumes that one quantity is extremely small relative to the other quantity when we say such a limit. For example, in relativity, we take a limit $ v/c \rightarrow 0 $ if the system's speed is very low relative to the speed of light. So, I wonder if we may compare $ \hbar $ with something in quantum mechanics too.
Especially, I wonder if this idea may be related to some concepts like decoherence, which frequently appears in open quantum systems. I mean, if we consider an open system in path integral formalism, can we extract some physical quantity $ X $ (maybe related to decoherence rate) and compare it with $ \hbar $ so that we justify when to take a limit $ \hbar \rightarrow 0 $, that is, $ \hbar / X \rightarrow 0 $. Or perhaps there would be an 'effective $\hbar$' depending on the total system? (so that it provides a reason for the argument 'when the scale of the action is much larger than $\hbar$ we can take a limit $\hbar \rightarrow 0 $.')
I know that open quantum system and open QFT is a relatively new subject in physics, but I wonder if there are some results on my question.