I would argue that the SUVAT equations, which correctly describe all constant-acceleration motion (including hypothetical situations governed by unusual laws of dynamics), cannot possibly be derived from a specific set of laws of dynamics, such as Newton’s laws of motion.
Furthermore, the derivation of the SUVAT equations is well-established in, for example, How are the SUVAT equations derived? and Does the SUVAT equations of motion (Kinematics) come from some differential equation?. These derivations have nothing to do with any laws of dynamics.
Yet, the top-voted answer to an active SUVAT-themed question says:
They are in fact three results derived from the distillation of Newton's Laws: $$\mathbf f = \dfrac {\mathrm d} {\mathrm d t} (m \mathbf v)$$
which differential equation is solved, where $\mathbf f$ is set to a constant (and $m$ is taken for granted as being constant also).
(that question was based on three of the SUVAT equations)
When I challenged this statement, using similar arguments to the ones above, and asked for more details, I did not receive any responses that helped me. I did receive this response:
As for it "making no sense" to derive these equations of motion from Newton's equations, that is exactly the way this was introduced in one of my applied maths courses somewhere during my education -- as a way of unifying the SUVAT equations with the facts of reality.
Another user, not involved in that chat, tagged the question newtonian-mechanics.
So the idea that the SUVAT equations can be derived from Newton’s laws of motion seems to be well-established. Where did I go wrong, claiming that such a derivation is impossible, and what is the derivation?