The other answers are fine. This one is just to give you another perspective that may help in combination with the other answers.
First of all, the static friction force parallel to a surface always matches the opposing force parallel to the surface up until the maximum possible static friction force is reached, at which point relative motion between the object and the surface is impending.
So if you think of the object resting on a horizontal surface, there is no force parallel to that surface for the static friction force to oppose. So the static friction force is zero. Now if you start to increase the angle of the surface relative to the horizontal, the component of the gravitational force acting on the object down and parallel to the incline increases to $mgsin\theta$. The static friction force acting up the incline increases an equal amount preventing a net force downward and a downward acceleration of the object, as long as the maximum possible static friction force is not exceeded, which equals $\mu N$ where $N$ is the normal force to the incline.
We can simplify those calculations to $\mu = \tan \theta$
The following inequality means that in order for impending motion not to occur at an incline angle of $\theta$, the coefficient of static friction has to be
$$\mu \ge tan\theta$$
Or
$$tan^{-1}\theta \lt \mu$$
So, for example, if the coefficient of static friction $\mu =0.5$ then impending motion of the object will not occur as long as $\theta \lt 26.66^0$
Also, when calculating the static friction coefficient, is it best to
take the average? Like take the maximum static coefficient and divide
it by 2 to obtain the average. Or should I just take the maximum
static coefficient?
There is no average static friction force. As indicated above, the static friction force matches the opposing force on the object until the maximum possible static friction force is reached. That maximum force is based on a single value of the coefficient of static friction.
Hope this helps.