I was studying Linear Response Theory from 'A modern course in statistical physics' by Reichl, and some doubts came up.
The response function is defined as
$$<\alpha(t)>_{F} = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}dt'\bar{K}(t-t')\cdot F(t') = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}d\tau\bar{K}(\tau)\cdot F(t-\tau)$$
where $\bar{K}(t-t')$ is real and is called the response matrix.
Since this equation is linear in the force and using
$$<\alpha(t)>_{F} = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}d\omega<\alpha(\omega)>_{F}e^{-i\omega t}$$
we should arrive to this expression
$$<\alpha(\omega)>_{F} = \bar{\chi}(\omega) \cdot \tilde{F}(\omega) $$
where
$$\bar{\chi}(\omega) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\bar{K}(t)e^{i\omega t}dt$$
However, I cannot derive this result.
My attempt
I tried pluging in the definition of Fourier tranform of each variable in the first equation, and using
$$\delta (t) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-i\omega t}dt$$
I obtained
$$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} d\tau \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{2\pi} \bar{K}(\omega) \cdot F(\omega) e^{-i\omega \tau} d\omega$$
which is a bit far from the desired result.