0
$\begingroup$

I am wondering whether the moment of inertia about a pivot at one of its ends of a non-uniform rod can be calculated using the following equation: $$\frac{1}{3}ML^2$$

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

3
$\begingroup$

No you cannot use this formula. Imagine that all mass of the rod is concentrated at one end, the the moment of inertia will be either $0$ or $M L^2$. The correct formula for the moment of inertia in your case is \begin{equation} I = \int_0^L dx \rho(x) x^2, \end{equation} where $\rho(x)$ is the linear mass density of the rod. For a uniform rod $\rho(x)=\frac{M}{L}$, and then integration leads to $I = \frac{1}{3}ML^2$.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ \begin{equation} \rho(x)= \left \{ \begin{array}{lll} \rho_1, x\in (0,6)~\cup~(7,10), \\ \rho_2, x\in (6,7). \end{array} \right. \end{equation} $\endgroup$
    – nwolijin
    Commented Dec 10, 2020 at 19:21
  • $\begingroup$ @nwolijin Can I interpret that as taking three segments and finding their moment of inertia about their center of mass and then using the parallel axis theorem to a point about which the whole body rotates about? $\endgroup$
    – Linkin
    Commented Dec 10, 2020 at 19:28
  • $\begingroup$ @DuckTales You can just do piecewise integration over the three segments. The integral from 0 to 10 is the sum of the integrals from 0 to 6, 6 to 7, and 7 to 10. The axis of rotation is the same for each segment, not simply parallel. $\endgroup$
    – G. Smith
    Commented Dec 10, 2020 at 19:47
  • $\begingroup$ @JustJohan you can do that $\endgroup$
    – nwolijin
    Commented Dec 10, 2020 at 21:15
1
$\begingroup$

No. When deriving this equation from the moment of inertia definition, the density $\rho$ is assumed to be uniform. If the density is not uniform, the $\dfrac{1}{3}ML^2$ equation does not hold.

You would have to use $$I = \int r^2 dm$$ equation to find the moment of inertia of your non uniformly dense rod.

EDIT: as noted by user @Andrew Steane, for some 'special' density distributions it would hold.

But as a general rule, no (except in certain cases).

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ (well of course for some special density distributions it would hold :)) $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 10, 2020 at 19:04
  • $\begingroup$ that is true :P $\endgroup$
    – user256872
    Commented Dec 10, 2020 at 19:05

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.