8
$\begingroup$

Reading the book "Supergravity" from Freedman & van Proeyen I stumbled over the assertion that in 3D GR the vacuum solution $R_{\mu\nu} =0$ leads to a vanishing 4-rank curvature tensor $R_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma}=0$, therefore there are no gauge invariant degrees of freedom in the 3D GR vacuum case (I indeed found in Landau & Lifshitz's volume II chapter 93 a relation between the 3D Ricci-tensor and the 3D full 4-rank curvature tensor that confirms that).

But would that implicate that an axial-symmetric solution of the vacuum EFEs $R_{\mu\nu} =0$ in 3D=(1 time + 2space) would be trivial, i.e. not Schwarzschild ( replace if appropiate $r^2 d\Omega^2 \rightarrow r^2 d\phi^2$ instead of $r^2 d\Omega^2= r^2 (d\theta^2 +\sin^2 \theta d\phi^2$)) ?

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

11
$\begingroup$

No it is not. The Weyl tensor vanishes by definition in three dimensions, Einstein's equations (in the absence of matter) impose:

$$R_{\mu\nu} = 0 \rightarrow R=0$$

and since $Riemann = Weyl + Ricci$ no geometry can be formed.

The solution in three dimensional spacetime is the BTZ black hole (https://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/9204099v3) which includes a cosmological constant thus the Ricci tensor is no longer equal to zero.

A derivation: Consider $2+1$ Gravity and a cosmological constant term: \begin{equation} S = \int d^3 x \sqrt{-g} \big(R -2Λ\big) \end{equation} Einstein's equation read: \begin{equation} G_{\mu\nu} + \Lambda g_{\mu\nu} = 0 \end{equation} and in the form of differential equations, imposing a two degree of freedom metric: \begin{equation} ds^2 = -b(r)dt^2 + f(r)dr^2 + r^2 d\theta^2 \end{equation} we get: \begin{equation} \frac{2 \Lambda -\frac{f'(r)}{r f(r)^2}}{2 b(r)} =0 \end{equation} \begin{equation} -\frac{\frac{b'(r)}{r b(r)}+2 \Lambda f(r)}{2 f(r)^2} =0 \end{equation} \begin{equation} \frac{b(r) \left(b'(r) f'(r)-2 f(r) b''(r)\right)+f(r) b'(r)^2-4 \Lambda b(r)^2 f(r)^2}{4 r^2 b(r)^2 f(r)^2} =0 \end{equation} The first one is a differential equation for $f(r)$: $$2 \Lambda -\frac{f'(r)}{r f(r)^2} =0 \Rightarrow \Big(\Lambda r^2 + \cfrac{1}{f(r)}\Big)' =0 \Rightarrow $$ \begin{equation} f(r) = \cfrac{1}{C - Λr^2} \end{equation} where $C$ is a constant of integration. Now we can obtain $b(r)$ from the second equation: $$\frac{b'(r)}{r b(r)}+2 \Lambda f(r)=0 \Rightarrow (\ln(C-\Lambda r^2))' - (\ln b(r))'=0 \Rightarrow $$ \begin{equation} b(r) = C - \Lambda r^2 \end{equation} Now, if we set $C=-M$ and $\Lambda = -1/l^2$, where $l$ the AdS radius we obtain the BTZ Black hole: \begin{equation} b(r) = \cfrac{r^2}{l^2} -M = \cfrac{1}{f(r)} \end{equation} We can see that this solution satisfies the gauge $g_{tt}g_{rr} = -1$. The obtained configurations satisfy the last Einstein equation.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for the quick answer. What does BTZ mean ? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 12, 2020 at 14:35
  • $\begingroup$ Bañados, Teitelboim & Zanelli $\endgroup$
    – Noone
    Commented Oct 12, 2020 at 14:40
  • $\begingroup$ If i find time i'll sketch a derivation. $\endgroup$
    – Noone
    Commented Oct 12, 2020 at 14:41
4
$\begingroup$

As mentioned in ApolloRa's answer, in 2+1 dimensions there exist no asympototically flat black hole solutions. However, you can still solve the Einstein Field Equations to find the metric of a non-spinning point mass $M$. The answer is given by

$$ ds^2 = -dt^2 +\frac{1}{(1-4GM)^2}dr^2 + r^2 d\phi^2$$

As you can easily check this metric is flat for all $r>0$. However, it has a singular curvature at $r=0$. This can be confirmed by calculation the holonomy along a curve around the origin. If you parallel transport a vector around the origin, you will find that it has been rotated by $8\pi GM$ radians when it returns to its original position.

The spatial part of this metric, is that of a cone, which gives this type of singularity it name, a conical singularity.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you: Just a stupid question: in the denominator $1-4GM$ there is no $r$, is that meant like that ? And if there is a singular curvature in this metric, in a polar coordinates the curvature would be also singular ? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 12, 2020 at 15:19
  • $\begingroup$ @FredericThomas Yes, the coefficient of $dr^2$ is simply a constant. $\endgroup$
    – TimRias
    Commented Oct 12, 2020 at 15:22
  • $\begingroup$ The curvature in this solution can be thought of (sorta) as a delta function at the origin. $\endgroup$
    – TimRias
    Commented Oct 12, 2020 at 15:24
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @FredericThomas With one fewer space dimension than usual, rhe Newtonian acceleration is $-GM/r$ instead of $-GM/r^2$, so $GM/c^2$ is dimensionless. $\endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Commented Oct 13, 2020 at 11:32

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.