I was curious what would happen if we had a free particle hamiltonian and saw what would happen if your initial wavefunction was a delta function and time evolve it using Schrodinger's Equation (say in one dimension). Here were my thoughts:
$$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\partial^2_x\psi = i\hbar \partial_t \psi$$
Taking the Fourier transform, which I call $F(\cdot)$, and $F(\psi) = \tilde{\psi}$:
$$\partial_t \tilde{\psi} = \frac{\hbar i}{2m} (2\pi i k)^2 \tilde{\psi}$$
$$\implies \tilde{\psi} = \tilde{\psi}(t=0)\exp(\frac{-2\pi^2\hbar k^2 it}{m})$$
If we our initial wavefunction is a delta function (say centered at $x=0)$:
$$\tilde{\psi}(t=0) = F(\delta(x)) = \int \delta(x) \exp(-2\pi i xk) dx= 1$$
$$\implies \tilde{\psi}(k, t) = \exp(\frac{-2\pi^2\hbar k^2 it}{m})$$
Thus, in position space:
$$\psi(x, t) = F(\tilde{\psi}) = \int \exp(\frac{-2\pi^2\hbar k^2 it}{m}) \exp(2\pi ixk)dk$$
I believe this is correct, and (if it is) my main question is how do you interpret it?