The motion of particles is governed by Schrödinger's equation,
$$\dfrac{-\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \Psi + V \Psi = i \hbar \dfrac{\partial{\Psi}}{\partial{t}},$$
where $m$ is the particle's mass, $V$ is the potential energy operator, and $(-\hbar^2/2m) \nabla^2$ is the kinetic energy operator ($= p^2/2m$).
The state function can be expressed as the product of space-dependent and time-dependent factors, $\Psi(r, t) = \psi(r) w(t)$. If we substitute this into Shrödinger's equation, we get
$$\dfrac{-\hbar^2}{2m}w \nabla^2 \psi(r) + V \psi(r) w(t) = i \hbar \psi \dfrac{\partial{w}}{\partial{t}}$$
Upon dividing by $w(t)$, we get
$$\dfrac{-\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi(r) + V \psi(r) = i \hbar \dfrac{\psi}{w(t)} \dfrac{\partial{w(t)}}{\partial{t}}.$$
But the time-independent Shrödinger equation is said to actually be
$$\dfrac{-\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi(r) + V \psi(r) = E \psi.$$
I would greatly appreciate it if people would please take the time to explain what I did incorrectly here.