The object distance ($u$), image distance ($v$) and the focal length of a spherical mirror ($f$) are related by the well-known formula (using the appropriate sign convention):
$$ \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{f} $$
The location of the image happens to coincide exactly with the image of the point object $O$ when reflected about the circle centered at the focus $F$. (Note: Throughout this explanation, I'm assuming that $O$ is a point object on the $x$-axis.)
This relation can actually be derived quite easily from the defining equation of circle inversion: $OP \cdot OP' = r^2$ (where $O$ is the centre of the circle, $P$ is the original point, $P'$ is the reflected point and $r$ is the radius of the circle).
$I$ coincides exactly with the reflected image of the object O about the circle centered at F.">
In the case of spherical mirrors, the original point is $O$, the image is $I$, the center of the circle is $F$, and the radius is $f$. Further, $OF = f - u$, $IF = f - v$. Plugging these values into the equation gives
$$(f - u)\cdot (f - v) = f^2$$ $$\implies f\cdot (v + u) = u\cdot v$$ $$\implies \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{f} $$
Is it merely a coincidence that reflection in spherical mirrors can be described by circular inversion about an imaginary circle about the focus, or is there a deeper reason behind this?