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In deriving the form for the 4-force in special relativity, we begin with

$$\frac{d}{d\tau}p^{\alpha}=m\frac{d}{d\tau}u^{\alpha}=f^\alpha$$

where $\tau$ is the proper time, m is rest mass.

Since $u^\alpha$ is a 4-vector, we have that $u^\alpha \frac{d}{d\tau}u_\alpha$ is frame invariant. My question is why does $u^\alpha u_\alpha = c^2 \implies u^\alpha \frac{d}{d\tau}u_\alpha = 0$? Is the usual product rule for the derivative $\frac{d}{d\tau}$ applied to the inner product of two 4-vectors valid?

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  • $\begingroup$ To see for yourself, write out the contraction. $\endgroup$
    – G. Smith
    Commented May 5, 2020 at 4:53
  • $\begingroup$ Try to write $\frac{d}{d\tau}(\vec{u} \cdot \vec{u})$ $\endgroup$
    – seVenVo1d
    Commented May 5, 2020 at 8:43

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