suppose we take a charged particle and a magnet and place them at some particular distance apart .Now let's take 2 frame of reference.
[the charged particle and the magnet are in rest with respect to each other through out the whole event]{both of the frames are inertial}
frame(a): this frame is in rest with respect to the charged particle
frame(b): this frame is in motion with respect to the charged particle
now in frame(a) there is no change in the magnetic field due to the charged particle
now in frame(b);; As in this frame the charged particle is in motion.so it will generate a magnetic field,and if we assume the velocity is high enough to attract(let's say it is attraction in this case,if it will be repulsion then the result will be the opposite,but that will still come in this question) the magnet then after time(T) the both object will touch each other.
now after time(T) from the start of the event;
1.in frame(a) the charged particle and the magnet are at the same distance from each other as they were from the start of the event.
2.in frame(b) the charged particle and the magnet are touching each other.
now my doubt is ,is the result is true and if wrong what is the fault in my assumptions or in the theory?
thank you for answering.