For context, this is from the beginning of the proof for the Spin-orbit interaction term in atomic physics.
Classically, the magnetic field seen by a particle of charge $e$ moving with a velocity $v$ in an electric field $\vec E$ is given by $$\vec B = -\frac{1}{c^2}\vec v \times \vec E=-\frac{1}{ec^2}\vec v \times \nabla V(r)\tag{1}$$ where $$V(r)=\frac{-Ze^2}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r},$$ since the electron is moving in the electric field of the nucleus of charge $Ze$.
I know that Faraday's law is $$\nabla \times \vec E=-\frac{\partial \vec B}{\partial t}$$
and the Lorentz force is given by $$m\frac{dv}{dt}=e(\vec E + \vec v \times \vec B)$$
but eqn $(1)$ has neither of these forms so I can't figure out why eqn $(1)$ makes sense. For the RHS of equation $(1)$ I know that the Coulomb electrostatic force is given by $$F=-\nabla V(r)=\frac{Ze^2}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2}$$
But I am confused by the LHS as I have never seen it before.
Is anyone familiar with this equation $$\vec B = -\frac{1}{c^2}\vec v \times \vec E?$$
Or, put in another way is there a useful source of information (webpage etc.) that will explain where this equation originates?
I have already been given a thorough answer to this by a user which involves a relativistic treatment. Unfortunately, Lorentz transforms are way beyond my current scope of understanding.
Is there a 'simpler' way to intuit this formula $$\bbox[yellow,5px,border:2px solid blue]{\vec B = -\frac{1}{c^2}\vec v \times \vec E}$$ at the classical level?
I ask this because the quote given at the start of this post containing equation $(1)$ used the word "Classical" right at the beginning of the sentence, which implies there is a classical way to interpret $(1)$.
Thanks again.