I have recently been looking into the two-time theories and the implied concepts.

For me this seems slightly hard to grasp.

How can I see the basic concept in this theory in a fundamental way based on its implied interaction with normal 3+1 dimension?

I am interested specifically in how gauge symmetries that effectively reduce 2T-physics in 4+2 dimensions to 1T-physics in 3+1 dimensions without any Kaluza-Klein remnants.

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    $\begingroup$ Possible duplicates: physics.stackexchange.com/q/43322/2451 and links therein. $\endgroup$ – Qmechanic Dec 9 '12 at 21:24
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    $\begingroup$ "slightly hard to grasp." My friend, if you have understood one time dimension, you are already a king among physicists. $\endgroup$ – kηives Dec 10 '12 at 1:19
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    $\begingroup$ Great comments if someone could combine them into a coherent and collective answer that would be great. If I have the time tonight, I will try to do this myself. $\endgroup$ – Argus Dec 10 '12 at 20:20
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    $\begingroup$ @Jerry No, theories with two time dimensions can be ok if these are only infinitesimal, such as applied in Cumrun Vafa's F-theory for example. If they were macroscopic there would of course be large problems. $\endgroup$ – Dilaton Dec 11 '12 at 17:39
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    $\begingroup$ @jerry next time, use the comments area for stuff which doesn't answer the question.. :) $\endgroup$ – Manishearth Dec 12 '12 at 11:01

In this blog post, a paper that derives by dimensional reduction well known super Yang-Mills (SYM) theories, such as N=1 SYM in 9+1 dimensions and N=4 SYM in 3+1 dimensions among other things using a SYM theory in 10+2 dimensions as a common more fundamental underlying theory.

As can be seen from looking at figure 1 of that paper

enter image description here

As stated below equation (3.1), if applying the method of deriving shadows of two time physics to obtain lower dimensional theories, Kaluza-Klein are avoided.

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