I'll try to elaborate on the previous answer and comments to show explicitly how the symmetry argument goes.
Let us start with the vanishing of the electric field's $y$ and $z$ components. It is a direct consequence of the infinite extension of the plane and the superposition principle for the electric forces. Indeed, the field at each space point of cartesian coordinates ($x,y,z$), due to a uniform planar charge in the $x=0$ plane, can be considered as the superposition of the fields originating from an infinite sequence of concentric circular crowns centered at $(y,z)$. The $y$ and $z$ components of the field at a $(x,y,z)$ must vanish because, for each element of the circular crown, there is an opposite element whose contribution to the components of the field parallel to the plane will cancel.
Notice that this argument requires only the rotational and translational invariance (in the plane) of the charge distribution and does not use the distance dependence of the Coulomb law.
On the contrary, we can prove the $x$-independence of the $x$-component of the field only for the Coulomb interaction, because only that form of interaction introduces a specific scale invariance. For the sake of simplicity, let's consider the contribution to the field at ($x,0,0$), due to the circular crowns centered at the origin of the $x=0$ plane. Due to the translational symmetry, the same argument applies to any other point ($x,y,z$). By using cylindrical coordinates ($r,\phi,x$) with the line $z=0$ and $y=0$ as cylinder axis, the contribution of the crown of width ${\mathrm d}r$ to the $x$-component of the field at ($x,0,0$) is
$$
{\mathrm d}E_x= 2 \pi \frac{x r {\mathrm d}r}{(r^2+x^2)^{\frac32}},
$$
that is invariant under rescaling of $x$ and $r$ by the same factor:
$$
{\mathrm d}E_x(\lambda x, \lambda r) = {\mathrm d}E_x(x,r).
$$
Therefore, for each $x$, we can choose $\lambda=\frac{1}{x}$ to get $${\mathrm d}E_x(x,r)={\mathrm d}E_x(1,(r/x))=2 \pi \frac{ \left( \frac{r}{x} \right) {\mathrm d}\left( \frac{r}{x}\right) }{\left (\left( \frac{r}{x} \right)^2+1 \right)^{\frac32}}.$$ This implies that
$
E_x(x)=\int_0^{\infty}{\mathrm d}E_x(x,r)
$ is a constant. Any other interaction would imply an $x$-dependent $E_x$