I'm currently trying to read up on the Lorentz-group and its representations. I've found a couple of posts here on stack-exchange that I find helpful and confusing at the same time, so I would be glad if someone could help me connect the dots. I will be referencing the following two posts: [1] and[2]. From here on I will call $SO(1,3; \mathbb{R})$ the (proper) Lorentz-group (if the distinction between proper and not-proper Lorentz group should be relevant for the representation-theory, please mention it!).
By studying [2] and [1] sooner or later we make the switch from $SO(1,3;\mathbb{R})$ to $SO(1,3;\mathbb{C})$. I'm having a hard time seeing why... During a class my professor wrote down the following: $$\mathfrak{so}(1,3;{\mathbb{C}})\cong \mathfrak{su}(2)_{\mathbb{C}} \oplus \mathfrak{su}(2)_{\mathbb{C}}\cong \mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C}) \oplus \mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C}),$$ which agrees with what is written in [3] as far as I understand. But again, the question why we consider the complexification of the Lorentz group comes up. In [1] I only see the statement that $SO^+(1,3;\mathbb{R})$ is a subgroup of $SO(1,3;\mathbb{C})$, but why is this relevant for the representation theory of $SO(1,3;\mathbb{R})$ if $SO(1,3;\mathbb{C})$ is not simply connected and the universal cover of $SO(1,3;\mathbb{R})$?
I'm sorry if the question is badly structured or confusing, but I just can't put a better structured question together.