In QFT, let $U(\Lambda)$ denote a unitary representation of the Lorentz group. Let $\phi(x^{\mu})$ be scalar field operators in the Hilbert space; in other words:
$$U^{-1}(\Lambda)\phi(x^{\mu}) U(\Lambda) = \phi(\Lambda^{-1}x).$$
What does this equation physically implies? Does this mean if we have a scalar field $\phi(x^{\mu})$ in one coordinate $x^{\mu}$, how it looks like in coordinate $\Lambda x$? If so, this confuses me.
Because if we denote $$x=\Lambda y$$ Then the equation above can be written as $$U^{-1}(\Lambda)\phi(\Lambda y) U(\Lambda) = \phi(y).$$ Which one is the old field and which one is the one transformed? How should we understand it intuitively? Is this active or passive transformation? I've read some about active and passive transformation, but they don't help me understand this question.