I am studying quantum field theory using David Tong's notes available at http://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/tong/qft.html and I am stuck at page 135 eq. $6.56$
I fail to see how the following equation: $(a^3_p-a^0_p)|\phi\rangle=0$ implies that the state $|\phi\rangle$ must contain equal pairs of timelike and longitudinal photons.
For example, according to the above, $|\phi\rangle=a_q^{3\dagger}a_q^{0\dagger}|0\rangle$ should be a valid state but when I substitute this into $(a^3_p-a^0_p)|\phi\rangle$, I obtain $(2\pi)^3\delta^3(p-q)[a_q^{0\dagger}+a_q^{3\dagger}]|0\rangle$ which is different from 0?