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Janev et al. in their book Elementary Processes in Hydrogen-Helium Plasmas say that the reaction rate $\langle\sigma v\rangle$ of a certain collision with cross-section $\sigma(v_r)$ for a particle of mass $m$ and energy $E=\frac{1}{2}mV^2$ incident on a stationary Maxwellian distribution of particles with mass $M$ and temperature $k_BT\equiv Mu^2/2$ is:

$$\langle\sigma v\rangle(T,V)=\frac{1}{\pi^{1/2}uV}\int_{0}^{\infty}dv_r v_r^2\sigma(v_r)\{\exp[-(v_r-V)^2/u^2]-\exp[-(v_r+V)^2/u^2]\}$$

where $v_r$ is the relative velocity between the incident paticle and the particles from the Maxwellian.

I really have no idea where this expression comes from. I mean, I know that the general expression is

$$\langle\sigma v\rangle=\frac{1}{n_1n_2}\int d^3v_1d^2v_2 f_1f_2\sigma(v_r)v_r$$

and I know the calculation I would have to do if, instead of an incident particle on a Maxwellian, we would have two species in equilibrium (so both $f_1$ and $f_2$ Maxwellians with same $T$).

But I really have no idea on how it should be in this particular case. Maybe what I am missing is on how to write the distibuition function to the incident particles and how that develops into that term with the difference of two exponentials...

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  • $\begingroup$ Are you sure the first expression is the difference of two exponentials and not supposed to be the difference of the two exponents? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 1, 2018 at 21:03
  • $\begingroup$ Well, in the book I quoted it is the difference of two exponentials... $\endgroup$
    – AJHC
    Commented Jun 2, 2018 at 11:55
  • $\begingroup$ Maybe what you're sugesting is that if it would be the difference of the two exponents, then possibly what is being made is assuming $f_1$ a Maxwellian and $f_2$ a constant dirstribution, ie, $$ \int d^3v_2f_2=n_2 \text{ ?}$$ Well, even if this is the case, I can't get the result with the difference of the exponents... $\endgroup$
    – AJHC
    Commented Jun 2, 2018 at 15:12
  • $\begingroup$ If you multiply two exponents together, the result will be one exponential with the sum of the two exponents. So if it's $f_{1} \ f_{2}$ and both are Maxwellian-like, then the integrand should contain a single exponential with the sum of the exponents, thus my question. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3, 2018 at 1:01
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, of course, I understand that. But as I said in the first post: this is not the case of two maxwellians. Also note that even if it would be the case os two maxwellians and if the original expression was wrong and the correct one would have only one exponential with the sum of the two exponents, even in that case the result wouldn't be this one, since it would not depend on $V$ the way it does. $\endgroup$
    – AJHC
    Commented Jun 3, 2018 at 9:02

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