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For linearized gravity $G_{\mu\nu} = 8 \pi G T_{\mu\nu} $, for $$ G_{\mu \nu} = \frac{1}{2} \left[ \partial_\sigma \partial_\nu {h^\sigma}_\mu + \partial_\sigma \partial_\mu {h^\sigma}_\nu -\partial_\mu \partial_\nu h - \square h_{\mu\nu} - \eta_{\mu \nu} \partial_\rho \partial_\lambda h^{\rho \lambda} + \eta_{\mu \nu} \square h \right] $$ We let $T_{\mu \nu}$ be describing dust. By deriving the transformation properties of $h_{\mu \nu}$, we want to show that this describes a Lorentz-invariant theory of a symmetric rank-2 tensor field (h) on flat spacetime.

My attempt: I thought the only straight forward way to do this was by showing that the Lagrangian density of the theory is lorentz invariant. According to Carroll the Lagrangian density is $$ \mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2} \left[ (\partial_\mu {h^{\mu \nu }} )(\partial_\nu h) - (\partial_\mu {h^{\rho \sigma}} )(\partial_\rho {h^{\mu }}_{ \sigma} ) + \frac{1}{2} \eta^{\mu \nu} (\partial_\mu {h^{\rho \sigma }} )(\partial_\nu {h}_{\rho \sigma } ) - \frac{1}{2} \eta^{\mu \nu}(\partial_\mu h )(\partial_\nu h ) \right] $$ However, every attempt I made failed which makes me wonder if I didn't understand the question properly or if I am plain stupid. Consider the last term for instance: $$ \eta^{\mu \nu}(\partial_\mu h )(\partial_\nu h ) = (\partial_\mu h )(\partial^\mu h ) $$ We must have $(\partial_\mu h )(\partial^\mu h ) \to (\partial_\mu h )(\partial^\mu h )$, otherwise $\mathcal{L}$ is not lorentz invariant. However, when I try to Lorentz transform one of the factors: $$ \partial_\mu h \to \eta^{\rho \sigma} {\Lambda_\mu}^\nu {\Lambda^\alpha}_\rho {\Lambda^\beta}_\sigma \partial_\nu h_{\alpha \beta}, $$ which gets me nowhere. I get a similar mess for all the other terms. Any hints to help me make some progress or spotting mistakes would be appreciated.

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    $\begingroup$ Lagrangians need not to be invariant!!! The action is invariant. This means that your Lagrangian can change by a total derivative. Moreover, you know what is $\eta^{\rho \sigma} \Lambda^{\alpha}_{\vphantom{\alpha} \rho} \Lambda^{\beta}_{\vphantom{\beta} \sigma}$, don't you? $\endgroup$
    – OkThen
    Commented May 10, 2017 at 21:54
  • $\begingroup$ Aha! Any suggestions how I would do it differently? $\endgroup$
    – Mikkel Rev
    Commented May 10, 2017 at 21:56
  • $\begingroup$ Your approach is fine. Usually that is why people deal with index notation. It makes the transformation properties manifest. Play a bit with $\partial_{\mu} h$ like you are doing and any questions please do come back. $\endgroup$
    – OkThen
    Commented May 10, 2017 at 22:00
  • $\begingroup$ I know what $\eta^{\rho \sigma} {\Lambda_\rho}^\alpha{\Lambda_\sigma}^\beta$ is. But not what $\eta^{\rho \sigma} {\Lambda^\alpha}_\rho{\Lambda^\beta}_\sigma$ is, which is what I have in my expression. $\endgroup$
    – Mikkel Rev
    Commented May 10, 2017 at 22:05
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    $\begingroup$ You can figure it out by knowing that $x^{\mu} x_{\mu}$ is a scalar, that is, it doesn't change when Lorentz rotated. $\endgroup$
    – OkThen
    Commented May 10, 2017 at 22:10

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