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I'm reading Introduction to Quantum Mechanics by Griffiths and there is a part that I don't understand. He says that a free electron with a well defined energy cannot exist (bottom of pg. 60, 2nd edition). I don't understand why though.

Let's say that I make an experiment. On the left side I have a device which will eject a single electron towards the right. On the right I have a wall that will notice exactly when a free electron hits it. I run the experiment: the electron is emitted and the wall receives it. The time taken to reach the wall is recorded. I now know the energy of the electron using $E=\frac{mv^2}{2}$, where $v=d/t$, $d=$ the distance that the electron travelled and $t$ is the time it took for the electron to travel the gap. This experiment used a free particle in the sense that it traveled a vacuum gap without interacting with anything before it hit the wall.

Where is my understanding flawed?

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  • $\begingroup$ You measured a value for the energy, but this doesn't mean that the energy was well defined before your measurement. This is the fundamental point in quantum mechanics. $\endgroup$
    – Javier
    Commented Feb 14, 2017 at 22:18
  • $\begingroup$ But at what point in my experiment does the measurement occur? I believe it is when it hits the wall, right? I am not measuring the particle's energy during the traveling, so I would argue that I am not interfering with it. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 14, 2017 at 22:23
  • $\begingroup$ Was the book discussion perhaps related to a discussion of the Heisenberg's uncertainty principle? en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uncertainty_principle $\endgroup$
    – MaxW
    Commented Feb 14, 2017 at 23:40
  • $\begingroup$ You seem to be assuming that you know the initial position of the electron. Of course there are no square-integrable wave functions that correspond to exact positions, but let's abstract from that. Over time, the wave function evolves; then at some point it collapses due to the interaction with the wall. Okay. Then you seem to be assuming that at some intermediate time (or at all intermediate times?) the wave function was an eigenstate of the energy operator. But that's false (and even if you don't see why it's false, you should at least see that there's no reason to expect it). $\endgroup$
    – WillO
    Commented Feb 15, 2017 at 1:43

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If a free particle has a definite energy, then it has a definite momentum by $p=\sqrt{2mK}$ ($p$ is the particle's momentum, $m$ is the particle's mass, and $K$ is the particle's kinetic energy). The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle states that the uncertainty of the position of a particle ($\Delta x$) multiplied by the uncertainty of the momentum of a particle ($\Delta p$) has a minimum of $$\Delta x \Delta p \geq \frac{h}{2\pi},$$ where $h$ is Planck's constant. If $\Delta p = 0,$ then $\Delta x = (h/2\pi)/0 = \infty,$ meaning the electron could hit the screen after an arbitrary amount of time since it starts from a completely uncertain location. This makes your energy measurement impossible since $d$ is completely unknown. If you prepare your electron so that it starts from a definite position, reducing $\Delta d$, then it's momentum must be more uncertain, meaning your timing measurements will have more uncertainty ($\Delta t$).

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    $\begingroup$ You have to mention the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle to have a complete answer for a student who seems not to have connected the dots. give a link,en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heisenberg_Uncertainty_Principle . $\endgroup$
    – anna v
    Commented Feb 15, 2017 at 6:40
  • $\begingroup$ @annav Good point. $\endgroup$
    – Mark H
    Commented Feb 15, 2017 at 7:05

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