In book "Element of Gasdynamics" (authors Liepmann and Roshko) at paragraph "1.7 The First Law Apllied to Reversible Process. specific Heats." There is written (specifying that I'm going to report only some formulas and not the entire test between each formula and other) :
$$\mathrm{d}e=\mathrm{d}q-p\cdot \mathrm{d}v \quad(1.15) $$
$$c=dq/dt \quad(1.16)$$
$$c_v=(dq/dT)_v \quad(1.17a)$$
$$c_p=(dq/dT)_p \quad(1.17b)$$
$$\mathrm{d}e=\frac{\partial(e)}{\partial(v)}\cdot dv+\frac{\partial(e)}{\partial(T)}\cdot dT=dq-p\cdot dv$$
$$c_v=\frac{\partial(e)}{\partial(T)} \quad(1.18)$$
$$c_p=\frac{\partial(e)}{\partial(T)}+(\frac{\partial(e)}{\partial(v)}+p)\cdot(\frac{\partial(v)}{\partial(T)})_p \quad(1.19)$$
Why in equation (1.18) is not indicated that $\frac{\partial(e)}{\partial(T)}$ is keeping "$v$" constant? Why in equation (1.19) is not indicated that $\frac{\partial(e)}{\partial(T)}$ is keeping "$p$" constant?
$$
as in$\frac{1}{2}$
renders as $\frac{1}{2}$. You can edit now (when/if my edit is improved) to fix the type setting as you wish. $\endgroup$