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In a certain text discussing longitudinal waves it stated that for a sound wave, both the kinetic energy and potential energy are maximum at the same time.

I always thought that the potential energy depended on the displacement and the kinetic energy the particle velocity, which put them out of phase such that the sum of the two remained constant. Other texts that I have read also state that the potential and kinetic energy are out of phase.

Which is correct?

Thanks in advance for any information.

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  • $\begingroup$ While it sounds counterintuitive, I noticed that I was intuitively picturing a standing wave, where this wouldn't be true. I have to admit that, currently, I am having trouble with an intuitive argument about a moving compression wave. $\endgroup$
    – CuriousOne
    Commented May 13, 2016 at 21:51
  • $\begingroup$ Nope, the book is right. It's also true for waves on a string, and sort of true by analogy for E/M waves (where electric/magnetic fields take the places of the kinetic/potential energy). It's probably easiest to grasp using the string example. $\endgroup$
    – knzhou
    Commented May 13, 2016 at 21:52
  • $\begingroup$ @knzhou: Got a good idea how to right my intuition? My mind seems to inevitably fall back onto the standing wave, which is the only thing I seem to be able to picture. Trouble is... I am not sure a coordinate transformation into the system of the moving wave gets this right, either. $\endgroup$
    – CuriousOne
    Commented May 13, 2016 at 22:00
  • $\begingroup$ perhaps relevant arxiv.org/pdf/1007.3962.pdf $\endgroup$
    – user83548
    Commented May 13, 2016 at 22:06
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the prompt replies. Why I questioned it, is because other texts that I have read seem to suggest the kinetic and potential energies are out of phase. physnet.org/modules/pdf_modules/m203.pdf I’ll need to read through the paper linked to by bruce a few times, as I’m not sure I understand why the potential energy vanishes to zero at a crest simply because the “string element” is horizontal. I had assumed that the potential energy came from the tension, and hence restoring force, which was a maximum at maximum displacement. Again, thanks for the comments. $\endgroup$
    – Steve_B
    Commented May 13, 2016 at 23:45

1 Answer 1

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As knzhou mentioned, this is true even for progressive waves in a string. Your mistake might be to think about simple harmonic motion instead of harmonic waves.

I will show it for a progressive transverse wave in a string. It is easier to visualize. At the end I will give you a sketch for longitudinal waves.

For a string of density $\mu$ and tension $T$ and supporting a wave $y(x-vt)$ the kinetic energy of an element $dx$ is $$dK=\frac 12\mu dx\left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial t}\right)^2.$$ For the potential energy we have $$dU=Tdl,$$ where $k$ is some elastic constant and $dl$ is the stretched amount of the string. A small section $dh$ of the string is the hypotenuse of a right angle triangle with basis $dx$ and height $\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}dx$. Hence the amount stretched is $$dl=\sqrt{dx^2+\left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\right)^2dx^2}-dx=\frac{dx}{2}\left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\right)^2.$$ In the last equation we neglect higher terms in $\left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\right)$ since we assume small displacements. Then $$dU=\frac{Tdx}{2}\left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\right)^2.$$ Calling $x-vt\equiv u$, we see that $$dE=dK+dU=\frac 12\mu v^2\left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\right)^2dx+\frac{T}{2}\left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\right)^2dx.$$ As we can see, the kinetic and potential energy are in phase.

For longitudinal waves what changes is the calculation of the potential energy. The tension on an elastic medium is proportional to $\frac{\partial \varphi}{\partial x}$, where $\varphi$ is the longitudinal displacement and $\frac{\partial \varphi}{\partial x}$ is the strain. The work and therefore the potential energy is proportional to $$\frac{\partial \varphi}{\partial x}d\varphi=\left(\frac{\partial \varphi}{\partial x}\right)^2 dx.$$ Again you will get $$dK\propto dU\propto \left(\frac{\partial \varphi}{\partial x}\right)^2dx.$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Sorry for the delay in replying, but thank you very much for taking the time to write a detailed reply. $\endgroup$
    – Steve_B
    Commented May 26, 2016 at 22:12

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