Newton's second law says that $$F=\frac{\text{d}p}{\text{d}t},$$ where $F$ is the net force on a body. My question is, why can't the product rule be used to yield $$F=v\frac{\text{d}m}{\text{d}t}+m\frac{\text{d}v}{\text{d}t}$$ I've read that it doesn't respect Galilean Invariance, but can somebody explain why this is so? I've seen a respectable textbook (Morin) doing this without any problems, so I was wondering if this were correct.
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$\begingroup$ What is $\frac{dm}{dt}$ physically? What happens to the mass when it disappears? $\endgroup$– JiKCommented Jul 8, 2015 at 10:31
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$\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/24425 $\endgroup$– innisfreeCommented Jul 8, 2015 at 14:40
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$\begingroup$ Though in the linked question, the answers neglect the problems with a time-dependent $m$ in Newton's second law. $\endgroup$– innisfreeCommented Jul 8, 2015 at 14:42
2 Answers
As wikipedia says about the second law,
As Newton's second law is only valid for constant-mass systems, mass can be taken outside the differentiation operator by the constant factor rule in differentiation
This is expanded in the article about variable mass systems. You derived the formula $$ F = m\dot v + \dot m v. $$ where $\dot v \equiv {\text{d}v}/{\text{d}t}$ etc. This violates Galilean invariance because it is not invariant under $v\to v + \Delta v$. If, for example, the force is zero, $$ \dot v = -\frac{\dot m}m v, $$ an object with a velocity $v$ and changing mass accelerates. The value of $v$, however, is dependent on an observer's frame of reference, and thus so is the acceleration in this case.
This is resolved by considering that a changing mass implies that mass is being ejected from an object (or accrued). The correct equation in these circumstances is $$ F_{\text{external}} = m\dot v - \dot m u $$ where $u$ is a the relative velocity with which mass is ejected from the centre of mas of the object with mass $m(t)$ and velocity $v$. You can derive this formula by simple considerations about the momentum of a system that emits/accrues a mass $\text{d}m$ in time $\text{d}t$.
Because this equations depends on a relative velocity $u$ rather than an absolute velocity, it is invariant under Galilean transformations, i.e. the relative velocity does not change $u=v_1 - v_2 \to u$, even if the absolute velocities are shifted $v_i\to v_i + \Delta v$.
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$\begingroup$ So why it is frequently stated that Newton's law is: $$F=\frac{dp}{dt}$$ $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 9, 2020 at 21:23
So, $F = \frac{dp}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt}(mv)=m\frac{dv}{dt}+v\frac{dm}{dt} = m\frac{dv}{dt} =\frac{dp}{dv} \times \frac{dv}{dt} = \frac{dp}{dt} = F $ nope, no problem. Note that $\frac{dm}{dt}$ is assumed zero because the situation described by the equation requires that the mass is constant, and hence time invariant. This is of course inapplicable if somehow the mass is changing. The most definite equation for the law should be $ F = ma = m\frac{dv}{dt} $ which works even if the mass is changing.
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$\begingroup$ not sure how this answers the question? $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 8, 2015 at 14:21
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$\begingroup$ @innisfree IMHO this answers the question by telling the OP what he suspects is a problem is not a problem. That doesn't mean this answer is correct, but at least this is what this it is doing. anyway, please enlighten me if there is anything wrong in this answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 8, 2015 at 14:46
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$\begingroup$ @busukxuan: The answer is wrong because $m$ is not constant in a variable mass system, so it is unclear to what $m$ refers here. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2021 at 15:05