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I'm reading about finding the mass of quarks in mesons. In the lecture notes, it says

We need to find $\langle\boldsymbol{s}_q\cdot\boldsymbol{s}_\bar{q}\rangle$. Since $L=0$, then $$\boldsymbol{J}=\boldsymbol{s}_q+\boldsymbol{s}_\bar{q}$$ so $$J^2={s_q}^2+{s_\bar{q}}^2+2\boldsymbol{s}_q\cdot\boldsymbol{s}_\bar{q}$$ which means $$\langle\boldsymbol{s}_q\cdot\boldsymbol{s}_\bar{q}\rangle=\frac{1}{2}\langle J^2-{s_q}^2-{s_\bar{q}}^2\rangle=\frac{1}{2}\left[J(J+1)-s_q(s_q+1)-s_\bar{q}(s_\bar{q}+1)\right]\hbar^2$$

My question is, why has he used $\boldsymbol{J}$ not $\mathbf{\hat{J}}$, and why has he dropped the bold from $\boldsymbol{J}$ to $J^2$. I find this confusing, considering it basically says $\langle J^2\rangle=J(J+1)\hbar^2$. I would be used to seeing $\langle\mathbf{\hat{J}}^2\rangle=j(j+1)\hbar^2$

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You're probably used to the convention where a hat is used to denote that something is an operator. But that convention is not universal. In many cases, when it's clear from the context whether something is an operator or not, we just write it without a hat either way. For this case in particular, $\boldsymbol{J}$ is defined to be an operator. The fact that you take its expectation value is another reminder that it's an operator. So the hat is omitted.

The bold, on the other hand, just denotes that $\boldsymbol{J}$ is a vector. It's a very common convention to use a bold letter to denote a vector and the corresponding non-bold letter to denote the $L_2$ norm (or magnitude) of that vector, which is defined such that $J^2 = \boldsymbol{J}^2$.

Actually, the way I've usually seen it, the letter that denotes a vector is set in a bold upright font, like $\mathbf{J}$, whereas your lecture notes evidently use a bold italic fond, $\boldsymbol{J}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Ok, that confirms what I had been beginning to suspect. I suppose that makes it slightly dogey when you have the operator on the LHS and the quantum numbers on the RHS of $\langle J^2 \rangle = J(J+1)\hbar^2$? $\endgroup$
    – binaryfunt
    Commented May 4, 2015 at 15:11
  • $\begingroup$ In that case you shouldn't be using the same letter for both. This is exactly why we use $j$ for the quantum number and $J$ for the operator. $\endgroup$
    – David Z
    Commented May 4, 2015 at 15:16
  • $\begingroup$ Actually, I'm not entirely sure why $\langle\hat{J}^2\rangle$ would equal $j(j+1)\hbar^2$. I know $\hat{J}^2\psi=j(j+1)\hbar^2\psi$, but I don't see why the expectation value would be the eigenvalue. As for $J$ vs $j$, I've just read in another course that $j$ is used for a single particle but $J$ is used in more complicated systems $\endgroup$
    – binaryfunt
    Commented May 4, 2015 at 15:58
  • $\begingroup$ Presumably it's referring to the expectation value in an eigenstate. In general, the expectation value depends on the state. Also, I'm not sure about this idea of using both $j$ and $J$ for the quantum number in different situations... the #1 rule (which unfortunately not everyone follows) is just to be clear. If you are using $J$ as an operator, best not to use it as a quantum number as well. $\endgroup$
    – David Z
    Commented May 4, 2015 at 16:19

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