I'm reading about finding the mass of quarks in mesons. In the lecture notes, it says
We need to find $\langle\boldsymbol{s}_q\cdot\boldsymbol{s}_\bar{q}\rangle$. Since $L=0$, then $$\boldsymbol{J}=\boldsymbol{s}_q+\boldsymbol{s}_\bar{q}$$ so $$J^2={s_q}^2+{s_\bar{q}}^2+2\boldsymbol{s}_q\cdot\boldsymbol{s}_\bar{q}$$ which means $$\langle\boldsymbol{s}_q\cdot\boldsymbol{s}_\bar{q}\rangle=\frac{1}{2}\langle J^2-{s_q}^2-{s_\bar{q}}^2\rangle=\frac{1}{2}\left[J(J+1)-s_q(s_q+1)-s_\bar{q}(s_\bar{q}+1)\right]\hbar^2$$
My question is, why has he used $\boldsymbol{J}$ not $\mathbf{\hat{J}}$, and why has he dropped the bold from $\boldsymbol{J}$ to $J^2$. I find this confusing, considering it basically says $\langle J^2\rangle=J(J+1)\hbar^2$. I would be used to seeing $\langle\mathbf{\hat{J}}^2\rangle=j(j+1)\hbar^2$