This arises from the question What is the relationship between $a$ and $m$, which I'm afraid I answered just by looking it up in Schutz's book. However Schutz (as he frequently does) glosses over details he thinks are irrelevant or too simple to be worth explaining, and I have realised I don't understand an assumption he makes.
Schutz states without proof that if we have an equatorial orbit in a Schwartzschild metric then:
Independence of the metric of the angle $\phi$ about the axis implies that $p_\phi$ is constant.
In the non-relativistic world I assume this corresponds to angular momentum being constant in a central potential. So far so good. But why is it the component of the dual vector $p_\phi$ that is constant rather than $p^\phi$? The component $p^\phi$ is presumably not constant since (in this case) $p^\phi = p_\phi/r^2$.
Bonus points for also explaining his similar claim that time independance means that $p_t$ is constant rather than $p^t$.
I fear that Schutz didn't explain because it's an insultingly simple question, but if someone can provide a nice intuitive explanation I would be very pleased to read it.