I would like to continue discussion from my previous post on time dependence of lagrangian Time dependence of the Lagrangian of a free particle?. I have also read this old post Why does calculus of variations work?
I think I understand how Lagrangian treats position and velocity as independent variables from the point of view of calculus of variations. I think velocity only really deals with "change in position" and not the position itself, and so my intuition is like this should be one of the reasons we have to treat position and velocity as independent from the physics point of view as well, and not just so because calculus of variations treats Lagrangian as a function of some variables (x,y,z). Even the change in velocity is just related to change in position in the relation below and not the position itself. $$\delta \dot q = {d \over dt} \delta q$$
So I think that not only position and velocity initial conditions are independent, but position and velocity are independent along any trajectory too. Is this why Lagrangian is specifically defined with position and velocity independent ? Also, position forms an affine space and so it doesn't make sense to me how can anything be dependent on it unless we define a frame (or origin). And we treat Lagrangian as frame independent too. Does this make any sense ? I just want to make things precise here. I hope my mind is not messing with me here.
Thank you