Dirac shows that the conjugate imaginary of $\langle \!P|\alpha$ is $\bar{\alpha} |P\!\rangle$ and then starts with the identity on page 27 in his book:
$$\langle B|\bar{{\alpha}}|P\rangle\;=\; \overline{\langle P|{{\alpha}}|B\rangle}\tag {4}$$
He then says this expression is true for any linear operator $\alpha$ and ket vectors$|P\!\rangle$ and $|B\!\rangle$; so replacing $\alpha$ with $\bar\alpha$ we get
$$\langle B|\bar{\bar{\alpha}}|P\rangle\;=\; \overline{\langle P|{\bar{\alpha}}|B\rangle}\;=\; \langle B|{\alpha}|P\rangle$$
by using (4) again with $|P\!\rangle$ and $|B\!\rangle$ interchanged.
Why should this give the second equality?
If (4) is applied again, I would expect ${\bar\alpha}\rightarrow \bar{\bar\alpha}$ getting back to the LHS expression, yet Dirac has ${\bar\alpha}\rightarrow \alpha$