On page 410 of Griffiths QM 2nd Ed. book, he begins an analysis to evaluate the integral: $$\frac{1}{2i}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{s \sin{(sr)}}{(s-k)(s+k)}\mathrm{d}s.$$ To exploit Cauchy's formula, he dissolves the integral into: $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{s e^{isr}}{(s-k)(s+k)}\mathrm{d}s-\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{s e^{-isr}}{(s-k)(s+k)}\mathrm{d}s.$$
Now he chooses a contour by which he overlooks the poles (at $\pm k$). The poles are (at least apparently) the most severe points. Is this a rigorous analysis? After all, for each of these two integrals I can choose a contour containing no poles at all, and hence each is zero. That is not the answer. I looked for mathematical sources that discusses this particular point, and I found none.