Let $\psi$ be a $2n$-component fermion wavefunction, and $H$ be the single-particle Hamiltonian.
What I call sublattice symmetry is some unitary transformation $U_s$ such that $U_s^{\dagger} H \, U_s = - H$. All energy levels are then mirrored around $E = 0$ (except for possible zero-energy Majorana?) To me this seems to already imply a charge conjugation symmetry: for any positive energy excitation, one can find a hole excitation in the negative energy band that has exactly the same energy.
But I am having trouble linking this to the standard formulation of the charge conjugation symmetry. My understanding is:
- Start with $i \partial_t \psi = H \psi$
- Take complex conjugate $-i \partial_t \psi^* = H^* \psi^*$
- If there exists a unitary $U_c$ so that
$$ -i\partial_t U_c \psi^{*} = \left(U_c H^{*} U_{c}^{\dagger}\right) U_{c} \psi^* = - H \, U_c \psi^{*} $$
then $H$ has a charge conjugation symmetry.
Does the existence of $U_s$ imply the existence of $U_c$? Or the other way round? How?
For a concrete example, the above is realized in (3+1)-dimensional Dirac equation. The Dirac Hamiltonian reads $$ \begin{split} H &= \vec{\alpha} \cdot (-i\nabla) + \beta m; \\ \alpha_i &= \gamma^0 \gamma^i; \; \beta = \gamma^{0}. \end{split} $$ Left-multiply the Schroedinger equation by $\gamma^{0}$ and one recovers the usual Dirac equation in covariant form. The two unitary matrices are $$ \begin{split} U_c &= i\gamma^{2}; \\ U_s &= \beta \alpha_1 \alpha_2 \alpha_3. \end{split} $$