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A particle with mass $m$ is inside the spherical quantum well $V(r)$: \begin{equation} V(r)= \begin{cases} -V_0, & \text{if}\ r<a \\ 0, & \text{otherwise} \end{cases} \qquad\qquad V_0 \in \mathbb{R^+} \end{equation} Find the ground state by solving the radial equation with $l=0$.


I do know how to solve this question, however there is one thing bugging me:

I start with the Schrödinger equation: \begin{equation} \hat{H}\psi(r, \vartheta, \varphi)=E \psi(r, \vartheta, \varphi) \end{equation} I then make the seperation ansatz $\psi(r, \vartheta, \varphi) = \phi(r) Y(\vartheta, \varphi)$ which yields (with $l=0$): \begin{equation} \phi''(r)+\frac{2}{r}\phi'(r)+\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(E-V(r)\phi(r)=0 \end{equation} Now I make the substitution $u(r) = r \phi(r)$ to get: \begin{equation} \bigg(-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{\partial^2}{\partial r^2}+V(r) \bigg)u(r) = Eu(r) \end{equation} which I then solve to: \begin{equation} u(r) = A\exp\bigg(\frac{\sqrt{2m(V(r)-E)}}{\hbar}r\bigg)+B\exp\bigg(-\frac{\sqrt{2m(V(r)-E)}}{\hbar}r\bigg) \end{equation}


I know that this is either a trig or an exponential function depending on the sign of $V(r)-E$. However there seem to be a few possible cases: For the first region we have $V(r)=0$ so there are two cases for the $\text{sgn}(E)$ and for the second there are two more. But when I find (similar) solutions to this problem online, they only write down one of them. Is there a physical argument why we can assume that $-V_0-E<0$ for example?

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It is a general fact that for any state $\psi(\vec{r})$, we have $$\langle H \rangle > \langle V \rangle \geq \min V(\vec{r}).$$ The first inequality holds because the kinetic energy operator $\hat{T} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2$ is a positive definite operator on any normalizable state, and $\langle H \rangle = \langle V \rangle + \langle T \rangle$. The second inequality follows from the definition of the expectation value, with equality only holding when $V(\vec{r})$ is a constant.

In your case, for an energy eigenstate, we have $E = \langle H \rangle$ and $\min V(\vec{r}) = - V_0$. The two facts above then imply that $E > - V_0$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for your answer. But I still have two cases when $V(r)=0$? But I guess in that case $E$ can't be negative, since that would imply that the particle has lower energy than the potential. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3 at 22:29
  • $\begingroup$ @haifisch123 note that the particular situation you are studying is necessarily with $-V_0\lneq E\lneq0$ with the strict inequalities. And your problem is not an oscillator, it is the spherical finite well. You should have seen the arguments as to why all these things are as they are, in the 1D finite square well case, because those arguments carry over directly, and that they form a much simpler situation from which to study these arguments. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 4 at 2:13

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