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Newton's third law says that if object A ``exerts" a force on object B called $F_{AB}$ then there is a force which B exerts on A $F_{BA}$ such that $F_{BA} = -F_{AB}$. With this in mind, consider the following two situations:

  1. A person stands on earth and the earth induces a force $mg$ on him where $m$ is the persons mass and $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity. By the third law, this means the earth has a reciprocal force $-mg$. However, the person also stands on the surface of the earth and hence he exerts a force $mg$ onto the surface and hence again by the third law, the surface exerts a reciprocal force back onto the person $-mg$. Hence, there are is a total of force of $-2mg$ on the person. Is this reasoning correct?

  2. Two planets $A$ and $B$ exist and planet $A$ exerts a gravitational force on $B$ $F_{AB}$ by Newton's law of universal gravitation. Hence by the third law there is a reciprocal $F_{BA}$ which $B$ exerts on $A$. However, we can invoke the Newton's law of universal gravitation again with the perspective of planet $B$ and say that $B$ exerts a force on $A$ $G_{BA}$ which is of course equal to $F_{BA}$. Does this mean that the total amount of force on planet $A$ is $2F_{BA}$? Or am I incorrectly understanding the assumptions which are needed to invoke the laws I've used?

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Hence, there are is a total of force of −2𝑚𝑔 on the person. Is this reasoning correct?

No, you have the direction of one of the forces wrong. The contact force and the gravitational force on the person act in opposite directions. The contact force pushes upwards and the gravitational force pulls downwards. They add together for a net force of 0, which is consistent with the fact that the person is not accelerating.

Does this mean that the total amount of force on planet 𝐴 is 2𝐹𝐵𝐴 ?

No. The gravitational force and the Newton’s 3rd law force are the same force. They are not two different forces.

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