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Given the Einstein field equations,

$$R_{\mu\nu} - \frac{1}{2}R g_{\mu\nu} = \kappa T_{\mu\nu}$$

that imply in particular that $\nabla_\mu T^{\mu\nu}=0$, one can show, using the explicit form of $T^{\mu\nu} = T^{\mu\nu}_{\text{particle}}$, that an isolated massive particle travels on a geodesic,

$$\ddot x^\rho + \Gamma^\rho_{\mu\nu}\dot x^\mu \dot x^\nu = 0.$$

My question is if someone has ever worked out what the corresponding result is for a charged particle in Einstein-Maxwell theory. I guess the only difference would be the explicit expression for the energy-momentum tensor, which would look something like $T^{\mu\nu} = T^{\mu\nu}_{\text{charged particle}} + T^{\mu\nu}_{\text{EM}}$, and intuitively it would seem that one should be able to arrive at the Lorentz force equation,

$$\ddot x^\rho + \Gamma^\rho_{\mu\nu}\dot x^\mu \dot x^\nu = \frac{q}{m}g^{\rho\mu}F_{\mu\nu}\dot x^\nu,$$

where $F_{\mu\nu}$ is the electromagnetic field tensor.

Any thoughts?

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    $\begingroup$ Have you tried Dirac's GR (1975) brochure? $\endgroup$
    – DanielC
    Commented May 22, 2022 at 0:20
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    $\begingroup$ The stress energy tensor will also include a term which describes the interaction energy between the electromagnetic field and the charged particle, it can't just be decomposed as the stress energy of the particle plus the stress energy of the field. $\endgroup$
    – Andrew
    Commented May 22, 2022 at 0:39
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    $\begingroup$ @DanielC Thanks! I just had a look and he indeed derives this exact result on page 57. $\endgroup$
    – Inzinity
    Commented May 22, 2022 at 10:57
  • $\begingroup$ @Andrew can you link to more details on that? In EM theory of point particles free of self-interaction, energy-momentum density tensor of such particle at $\mathbf r$ is $m\frac{1}{\gamma}\delta(\mathbf x - \mathbf r) u^\mu u^\nu$, and there is also EM energy-momentum density tensor, which is function of EM fields only. Sum of both has zero four-divergence. Interaction energy is a superfluous concept in this context (local conservation). $\endgroup$ Commented May 18 at 13:09
  • $\begingroup$ @Andrew This contribution is gauge-variant, and appears as "separate" only in canonical EM energy-momentum tensor. When the standard EM energy-momentum tensor, which is gauge-invariant, is used, there are no such terms depending on $A$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 18 at 13:55

1 Answer 1

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I thought about your problem for a bit andd have arrived at some calculation that I would like to show you. Note that we are using natural units where $c=1$.

Steps

  • We will first determine the exact representation of $T^{EM}_{\mu\nu}$.
  • We will then represent the formulation of the field equations of both the metric field and the elctromagnetic field.
  • At last, we will derive the equation(s) of motion for a particle in these fields.

Finding the value of $T^{EM}_{\mu\nu}$

$T_{\mu\nu}$ can be represented in the following way: $$T_{\mu\nu} = \frac {-2}{\sqrt{-g}} \frac {\delta\sqrt{-g}\mathscr{L}_{matter}}{\delta g^{\mu\nu}}$$ where $\mathscr{L}_{matter}$ is the Lagrangian density of the "matter field". This matter field is actually any kind of Lagrangian of any kind of field. Because we are working with EM fields, we will have to use: $$\mathscr{L}_{matter} = -\frac{1}{4}F^{\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu} + J^{\mu}A_{\nu}.$$

Note the use of Einstien's summation convention in this and the following equations.

The calculations are left to the reader, but after we have done all the awful calculations, we arrive at $$T_{\mu\nu}^{EM} = -g^{\gamma\alpha}F_{\gamma\alpha}F_{\mu\nu} - \frac{1}{4}g_{\mu\nu} + g_{\mu\nu}J^{\alpha}A_{\alpha}$$ which is quite a clean expression.

Field equations

We have written down the exact formulation of $T_{\mu\nu}^{EM}$. The following steps are very easy.

We just write $T_{\mu\nu} = T_{\mu\nu}^{other} + T_{\mu\nu}^{EM}$ and we are good to go. Just apply this formulation of $T_{\mu\nu}$ to the Einstien's field equations and we could derive some solutions.

For the elctromagnetic field, we know the field equations look like this: $$\partial_{\mu}F^{\mu\nu} = J^{\mu}. $$

Surprisingly, to include the metric tensor, we just have to slightly tweak this equation(s) and use the covariant derivative instead of the normal derivative and we have $$\nabla_{\mu}F^{\mu\nu} = J^{\mu}.$$

Hence, we have determined all the field equations.

The equation(s) of motion

The Lagrangian of a particle in a metric field and electromagnetic field are as follows: $$L_{metric} = -mg_{\mu\nu}\frac{\mathrm{d}X^{\mu}}{\mathrm{d}t}\frac{\mathrm{d}X^{\nu}}{\mathrm{d}t} \\ L_{EM} = -m\sqrt{1 - \dot{X}^{m}\dot{X}_{m}} + \frac{\mathrm{d}X^{\mu}}{\mathrm{d}t}A_{\mu}.$$

Note that the greek indices on $X$ means that we are summing over all the dimensions including the time and the latin index means that we are summing only over the spatial dimensions.

The reader has to apply the Euler-Lagrange equation to $L_{metric} + L_{EM}$ and he will get the equation(s) of motion as described in the question: $$\ddot{X}^{\rho} + \Gamma^{\rho}_{\mu\nu}\dot{X}^{\mu}\dot{X}^{\nu} = \frac{q}{m}g^{\rho\mu}F_{\mu\nu}\dot{X}^{\nu}.$$

To conclude, I am willing to listen to the clarifications of the readers and hope this helps.

Edit

Thanks for the clarification of the expert reviewers in the comments, I would like to mention some of the problems in my answer.

The $T^{EM}_{\mu\nu}$ is gauge variant, which means it can violate some gauge symmetries of the universe.

The last two lagrangians are for a point particle, no assumption should be made that it is true for any kind of matter distribution. The reader can change the lagrangian based on the problem they are solving.

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  • $\begingroup$ Great answer! The only thing I do not follow is how you conclude that the equations of motion should be given by the Euler-Lagrange equations of the sum of $L_\text{metric}$ and $L_{EM}$. Does it follow somehow from your previous calculations or is this an additional assumption? I do not want to assume anything in addition to Einstein's field equations, like the specific form of some Lagrangian from which the equations of motion follow. In the case with no electromagnetic field this is not necessary either. $\endgroup$
    – Inzinity
    Commented May 18 at 13:09
  • $\begingroup$ 1) Your $T_{\mu \nu}^{EM}$ is gauge-variant, thus is not the actual energy and momentum. Unless you define energy and momentum by this expression, which makes them depend on the choice of gauge, but this is not the usual meaning of these concepts. $\endgroup$ Commented May 18 at 13:18
  • $\begingroup$ 2) This derivation of motion of the point particle does not really work mathematically, because first you assume EM Lagrangian that works only for not too singular charge distributions (no charged lines or points), and then add a kinetic Lagrangian term for a charged point particle. These are inconsistent models and the sum makes the Lagrangian and equations of motion undefined, because $A$ and $F$ are singular at the position of the point particle. The derivation may work if you instead use particle where mass and charge is distributed in finite volume, so field remains defined everywhere. $\endgroup$ Commented May 18 at 13:18
  • $\begingroup$ Or you can retain point particles, but have to reformulate the EM Lagrangian to be consistent with them. One such theory is a la Frenkel. Cf. physics.stackexchange.com/questions/795485/… and physics.stackexchange.com/questions/813253/… $\endgroup$ Commented May 18 at 13:23
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks Jan for the clarification, the model is indeed inconsistent. Therefore, I will have to make some assumptions. I will add some edited points to the answer, just to make sure someone does not receive wrong interpretation of the answers. $\endgroup$
    – Ronny
    Commented May 18 at 13:28

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