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Let us consider a relativistic particle of mass $m$ and charge $q$ in a constant electric field $\mathbf{E}=E\mathbf{\hat{j}}$ moving in two spatial dimensions, a relativistic extension of the well-known problem of projectile motion. For the sake of making computations easier, I will use the Hamiltonian to find the equations of motion. It is $H=\sqrt{m^2c^4+(p_x^2+p_y^2)c^2}-qEy$, and Hamilton's equations¹ give the following equations of motion for the positions and momenta: $$\dot{p}_x=0, \dot{p}_y=qE$$ $$\dot{x}=\frac{p_xc^2}{\sqrt{m^2 c^4+(p_x^2+p_y^2)c^2}}, \dot{y}=\frac{p_yc^2}{\sqrt{m^2 c^4+(p_x^2+p_y^2)c^2}},$$ where a dot over a variable represents a derivative WRT the coordinate time $t$ and while in non-relativistic mechanics the trajectory is a parabola, in relativistic mechanics it is a hyperbola. The formulas for the components of the momentum as a function of coordinate time in the $x$ and $y$ directions are trivially found to be $p_x(t)=p_{x,0}$ and $p_y(t)=p_{y,0}+qEt$. We may substitute these results in the equations for $x$ and $y$ to find that in the $x$ direction, and factorizing to eliminate $c$'s we have $$\dot{x}=\frac{p_{x,0}c}{\sqrt{m^2 c^2+p_{x,0}^2+(p_{y,0}+qEt)^2}},$$ however it is easily seen that the $x$ component of the velocity is not constant, it is decreasing. There is a nonzero acceleration even though there is no force acting on it. How is that possible? What is the physical reason for this relativistic phenomenon?


¹:in their standard form $\dot{p}_i=-\frac{\partial H}{\partial x_i}$ and $\dot{x}_i=\frac{\partial H}{\partial p_i}$

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  • $\begingroup$ I didn't check the math, so I'm not posting this as an answer, but it could be that this acceleration appears to prevent the particle's speed of surpassing that of light. As the particle accelerates, the $y$ component of velocity gets larger and the $x$ component gets smaller to ensure $v_x^2 + v_y^2 < c^2$. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 26, 2022 at 6:18

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The relativistic equivalent of Newton's second law is$$f^\mu=\frac{d}{d\tau}p^\mu=\gamma\frac{d}{dt}\binom{\gamma mc}{\gamma\beta^i mc}.$$Setting $f^i=0$ only requires $\gamma\beta^i=\frac{\beta^i}{\sqrt{1-\beta^j\beta^j}}$ to be conserved, not $\beta^i$. In this case$$\beta^i=\frac{p^ic^2}{\sqrt{m^2c^4+p^2c^2}}\implies\frac{\beta^i}{\sqrt{1-\beta^j\beta^j}}=\frac{p^i}{m}.$$Since $p^x$ is conserved, so is $\gamma\beta^x$, as you expected.

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As stated in the other answer, force is the change in momentum, not mass times acceleration. The physical reason for the phenomenon is that momentum is not simply $mv$ in relativity. This leads to the situation in relativity where the acceleration is not generally parallel to the force.

For there to be acceleration there still needs to be a force, but the force and the acceleration are not necessarily co-linear. So breaking a force into components to get components of acceleration doesn’t work.

Using four-vectors is recommended for this reason.

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    $\begingroup$ Note, however, that even with relativity the explanation hinges on space not being $1$-dimensional. $\endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Commented Feb 26, 2022 at 16:25

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