I'm currently running a simulation for a physics project, seeing how the product of coefficient of restitution affects the percent kinetic energy lost in a system of two identical balls when they collide into each other on a frictionless surface (momentum is conserved). Their initial velocities are same in magnitude but opposite in direction. But when both coefficients of restitution were equal to zero, meaning their product was also zero, they were not perfectly inelastic. They bounced off of each other. When I searched online, everyone is saying when the coefficient of restitution is zero, it should be perfectly inelastic.
I don’t know how this is possible, because if the coefficient of restitution is zero doesn’t it mean there is no relative speed between the two objects after collision? Is there an explanation for this?