In page number 37 of Weinberg's lectures of quantum mechanics book (2nd edition), After Eq.2.1.17, he states the following:
The Schrödinger equation (2.1.3) then takes the form
$E \psi(x) = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2\mu r^2} \frac{\partial}{\partial r} (r^2 \frac{\partial \psi(x) }{\partial r} ) + \frac{1}{2\mu r^2} L^2\psi(x) + V(x) \psi(x)$. (2.1.17)
Now let us consider the spectrum of the operator $L^2$. As long as $V(r)$ is not extremely singular at $r = 0$, the wave function $\psi$ must be a smooth function of the Cartesian components $x_i$ near $x = 0$, in the sense that it can be expressed as a power series in these components. Suppose that, for some specific wave function, the terms in this power series with the smallest total number of factors of $x_1$, $x_2$, and $x_3$ have $l$ such factors. Here $l$ can be $0$, $1$, $2$, etc. The sum of all these terms forms what is called a homogeneous polynomial of order $l$ in $x$.
What I do not understand is why does he assume that wave functions for a particle in central potential near $r = 0$ must be homogeneous polynomials? Why cannot they be inhomogeneous?
$x_i$
rather thanx$_i$
. $\endgroup$