Let $\phi$ a non-scalar vector field. Why the Lorentz invariance of vacuum expectation value has as consequence that the vacuum expectation value $v=\langle 0|\phi(x)|0\rangle$ should be zero?
I conjecture that if $v \neq 0$ then something is going wrong with rotations, which form a subgroup of the Lorentz group, but what precisely it's going wrong?
Say $U \neq I$ is a non trivial rotation which acts by definition on vacuum expectation value as I know as $\langle 0|U \phi(x) U^{\dagger} |0\rangle$. How does the action of $U$ change $v$ if it's not zero?