I'm reading the QFT textbook by Weinberg. In volume one chapter 10 page 451, at the lower part of the page he says,
Now, because $\Pi^*_{\mu\nu}(q)$ receives contributions only from one-photon-irreducible graphs, it is expected not to have any pole at $q^2=0$.
$\Pi^*_{\mu\nu}(q)$ is the sum of all one-photon-irreducible graphs, with the two external photon propagators omitted.
Weinberg states it within one sentence as if it's self-explanatory, but I cannot understand why it is true. Is there something simple I missed?
Update: I think what Weinberg had in mind was Luboš Motl's answer, that why he's so brief. In addition Peskin & Schroeder used the same reasoning in page 245:
...the only obvious source of such a pole would be a single-massless-particle intermediate state, which cannot occur in any 1PI diagram
However P&S also put a footnote immediately after:
One can prove that there is no such pole, but the proof is nontrivial. Schwinger has shown that, in two spacetime dimensions, the singularity in $\Pi$ due to a pair of massless fermion is a pole rather than a cut; this is a famous counterexample to our argument. There is no such problem in four dimensions.
Thus my original question stands justified. I'd be grateful if one can give a reference that elaborates P&S's footnote. Of course explanations by any SE user himself/herself are even more welcomed.