I have a question about the probability current density. Because I cant really understand the meaning of that (how can we relate something real like a current to something abstract such as probability), I dont really have a good intuition for that.
The question is a part of a problem of finite potential barrier $$ V\left(x\right)=\begin{cases} 0 & x<0\\ V_{0} & x>0 \end{cases} $$
An incident particel comes from the negative part with energy given energy $ E $.
What Im trying to do is to find the probability current density for $x<0$ and $x>0$ for both cases $ E<V_0 $ and $E>V_0 $.
The wave function for the case $ E>V_0 $ is given by:
$$ \psi\left(x\right)=\begin{cases} Ae^{ikx}+Be^{-ikx} & x<0\\ Ce^{iqx} & x>0 \end{cases},\thinspace\thinspace\thinspace\thinspace k=\sqrt{\frac{2mE}{\hbar^{2}}},\,\thinspace\thinspace q=\sqrt{\frac{2m\left(E-V_{0}\right)}{\hbar^{2}}} $$
And the wave function for the case $ E<V_0 $ is given by
$$ \psi\left(x\right)=\begin{cases} Ae^{ikx}+Be^{-ikx} & x<0\\ Ce^{-\alpha x} & x>0 \end{cases},\thinspace\thinspace\thinspace\thinspace k=\sqrt{\frac{2mE}{\hbar^{2}}},\,\thinspace\thinspace\alpha=\sqrt{\frac{2m\left(V_{0}-E\right)}{\hbar^{2}}} $$
Now, in order to calculate the probability current, I want to use $ J\left(x\right)=\frac{\hbar}{m}|\psi\left(x\right)|^{2}\overrightarrow{k} $.
Define:
$ r=\frac{B}{A},\thinspace\thinspace\thinspace t=\frac{C}{A} $.
Thus, for the case $ E>V_0 $ and for $x>0 $ we have: $$ J\left(x\right)=\frac{\hbar}{m}|C|^{2}q=\frac{\hbar}{m}|A^{2}||t|^{2}q $$
But for $x<0 $ Im not sure how it should be, because the result that I got is different from my book result. Here's what I have tried:
$$ J\left(x\right)=\frac{\hbar}{m}|\psi\left(x\right)|^{2}k=\frac{\hbar}{m}|Ae^{ikx}+Are^{-ikx}|^{2}k=\frac{\hbar}{m}\left(A^{*}e^{-ikx}+A^{*}r^{*}e^{ikx}\right)\left(Ae^{ikx}+Are^{ikx}\right)k=\frac{\hbar}{m}|A|^{2}|r+e^{2ikx}|^{2}k $$
Which is different from my book's result. The book result for $ x<0 $ is given by:
$$ J\left(x\right)=\frac{\hbar}{m}|A|^{2}\left(1-|r|^{2}\right)k $$
And Im not sure how to get to this expression.
That was my questions for the case $ E>V_0 $. Now for the case $E<V_0 $, I know that the probability of transition is 0, that is to say, the probability of reflection is $ 1 $, and in this case the answer in the book is that the probability current is just $0 $, which I cannot understand why (Can we see it by the equation? or is it just an assumption we have to make by physics reasons?)
Thanks in advance, it is highly appreciated.