I was recently reviewing the classical Doppler effect for intro physics students. One aspect of such is that there's no transverse effect: An observer moving perpendicular to the motion of a plane wave will register no change in frequency. However, my first attempt to construct the argument ran into an issue...
To make things simpler, I'll assume that my source is fixed at $x=-\infty$. Suppose I have an east-moving monochromatic plane wave (frequency $f$, wavelength $\lambda$, and wave velocity $\vec{u}=u \hat{x}=f\lambda\hat{x}$) specified in the medium's rest frame. I introduce an observer moving north with speed $v$.
My first attempt was this. We need to boost to the reference frame of the observer, with coordinates $\vec{x}'=\vec{x}-\vec{v}t$. Such a boost doesn't change the wavelength ($\lambda'=\lambda$) but will modify the wave velocity $\vec{u}=f\lambda \hat{x}$: It transforms as $\vec{u}'=\vec{u}-\vec{v}=u\hat{x}-v\hat{y}$. Hence the wave speed seen by the observer is $u'=\sqrt{u^2+v^2}$, so the frequency as seen by the observer is $$f'=\frac{u'}{\lambda'}=\sqrt{u^2+v^2}{\lambda}=u\sqrt{1+v^2/u^2}.$$ Thus on this argument we would conclude that there is a transverse Doppler effect, albeit of second-order in $v/u$. (The usual Doppler effect is first-order in $v/u$.)
However, this is easily contradicted: Such a boost doesn't affect the horizontal position of the observer, and therefore the wave crests will continue to arrive with their original frequency and speed regardless. So there is no transverse Doppler effect. What, then, is the error in the initial argument?