In Quantum Field theory by M. Schwarz, the author in the introduction of chapter 12 on Spin Statistics theorem says, while describing identical Particles: Let $$|s_1p_1n_1,...,s_3p_3n_3\rangle \tag{1}$$ be some state consisting of $n_1$ particles with spin $s_1$, momentum $p_1$ and similarly $n_3$ particles with momentum $p_3$ and spin $s_3$ and many other particles.
Now in (1) we interchange particles labelled (1) and (3) so that state (1) above becomes:
$$|s_3p_3n_3,...,s_1p_1n_1 \rangle \tag{2}$$
The author then goes on to tell that the states described by (1) and (2) are equivalent upto a phase factor say $e^{i\alpha}$ i.e:
$$|s_1p_1n_1,...,s_3p_3n_3\rangle= e^{i\alpha}|s_3p_3n_3,...,s_1p_1n_1\rangle\tag{3}$$
Now, the author tells that the phase in above equation can only depend on number of particles and not on momentum or spin of particles as there are no non-trivial one-dimensional representations of the (proper) Lorentz group.
Now, I know that there are no nontrivial finite dimensional representation of Lorentz group but I am not able to connect the statement in bold to state (3) as how does this statement implies that phase factors can't depend on momentum or spin?