2
$\begingroup$

I know that instantaneous power is defined as the time derivative of work done. For a constant, it is easy to prove that this is just the dot product of force and velocity.

However, is Instantaneous power even equal to to F.V for a variable force, and if so, how do I prove it.

I have tried to find this on the internet, but to no avail. I did try differentiating the integral definition of work done by the use of chain ruke and the fundamental theorem of calculus but the answer turned out to be a “regular” product of force and velocity; clearly calculus with vectors is clearly different and I have no experience with it whatsoever.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

Given that work is the area under the Force-Distance curve

$$W = \int F(t)\,{\rm d}x$$

and power is the time derivative of work, and for each small-displacement increment ${\rm d}x = v\, {\rm d}t$

$$ P = \tfrac{\rm d}{{\rm d}t} W = \tfrac{\rm d}{{\rm d}t} \int F(t)\,v\,{\rm d}t = F(t)\,v $$

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.