I know that instantaneous power is defined as the time derivative of work done. For a constant, it is easy to prove that this is just the dot product of force and velocity.
However, is Instantaneous power even equal to to F.V for a variable force, and if so, how do I prove it.
I have tried to find this on the internet, but to no avail. I did try differentiating the integral definition of work done by the use of chain ruke and the fundamental theorem of calculus but the answer turned out to be a “regular” product of force and velocity; clearly calculus with vectors is clearly different and I have no experience with it whatsoever.