The spectral gap of a quantum model or a Hamiltonian, in the context of whether it is a gapped or gapless model, is often defined as the difference between the two lowest distinct eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian in the thermodynamic limit. (1) Is this definition restrictive in the sense that it excludes the case below?
Consider a Hamiltonian in the thermodynamic limit (or even in a finite but large size) has a finite set of distinct eigenvalues below a large spacing characterized by a parameter $\Delta$. That is, its eigenvalues arranged in increasing order are: $$ \{ \lambda_0,\lambda_1,...,\lambda_n,\lambda_n+\Delta,...\}. $$ Now, suppose that $(\lambda_n-\lambda_0) \ll \Delta$. Can $\Delta$ then be consider a spectral gap for which $\{\lambda_0,...,\lambda_n \}$ corresponds to the groundstate manifold?
(2) I would also like to ask if it is important to have the notion of spectral gap tied with the energy associated with local quantum fluctuations. By this I mean, for example, random spin-flip due to quantum fluctuations in spin systems. Suppose $\delta \ll \Delta$ is the energy associated to local quantum fluctuations. Consider $(\lambda_{i+1} - \lambda_i) \leq \delta$ for $i=0,..,n$. Does this make the model gapless even if the system can only be excited up to the $n$th eigenstate by local quantum fluctuations?