Let us define the following conformal integral:
$$X_{1234} = \int \frac{d^4 x_5}{(2\pi)^8} \frac{1}{x_{15}^2 x_{25}^2 x_{35}^2 x_{45}^2}\tag{1}$$
This is the box integral in position space, and it is finite when the $x_i$'s aren't equal.
I am interested in knowing if the integral $X_{1123}$ is divergent or not. In this paper, they say in Appendix A.$2$ (p.$25$) that $X_{1234}$ diverges logarithmically in the limit $x_1 \rightarrow x_2$. However, since I am only interested in the divergence occurring at $x_5 \sim x_1$, I can set:
$$\left. X_{1123} \right|_\text{div} \sim \frac{1}{(2\pi)^4 x_{12}^2 x_{13}^2} \int \frac{d^4 x_5}{(2\pi)^4} \frac{1}{x_{15}^4}, \tag{2}$$
and the remaining integral is known to be $0$, as shown in several sources such as the QFT book by Schwartz (eq. (B$.48$), p. 829), since the IR and UV divergences cancel each other.
So did the authors of the paper forget that this integral vanishes? Or is $X_{1123}$ indeed divergent, and if yes how can I extract the corresponding divergent term?