Edit: This is in $\phi^4$ theory.
Given this Feynman diagram
And using this formula to calculate the symmetry factor
$S = v\prod_{k}(k!)^{\pi _{k}}$
I calculate: $v = 1$, as you can only change the vertices labels once and retain the diagram's topology.
$\pi _{0} = 0$ as there are 0 pairs of vertices connected by 0 identical propagators.
$\pi _{1} = 0$ similarly
$\pi _{2} = 1$, as the pair are connected by 2 identical propagators.
$\pi _{3}$ = $\pi _{4} = 0$ as above.
This gives an overall symmetry factor of 2.
However, in the solution, $\pi _{2} = 0$, and $\pi _{3} = 1$, giving an overall symmetry factor of 6.
From my understanding of $\pi _{k}$, I don't see how this can be, as there aren't 3 identical propagators connecting this pair. What makes them identical?