I'm looking at the spin-squared operator for a two-particle state, and I've been confusing myself about justifying the equality in the posting title. Consider the vector space $V\otimes W$, and two linear operators $A\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ and $B\in\mathcal{L}(W)$. If $(v\otimes w)\in V\otimes W$, then we can define a linear operator $(A\otimes B)$ acting on elements of this space as
$$(A\otimes B)(v\otimes w) \equiv (Av\otimes Bw)$$
With $C\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ and $D\in\mathcal{L}(W)$, this implies $(A\otimes B)(C\otimes D) = (AC\otimes BD)$. Having laid that out, onto my confusion. The spin operator of a two particle state is $\textbf{S} = \textbf{S}_1\otimes\textbf{1}+\textbf{1}\otimes\textbf{S}_2$. Using the above result, the square of this operator would be
$$\textbf{S}^2 = \textbf{S}_1^2\otimes\textbf{1}+\textbf{1}\otimes\textbf{S}_2^2+2\cdot\textbf{S}_1\otimes\textbf{S}_2$$
but I'm failing to see why
$$\textbf{S}_1\otimes\textbf{S}_2 = \sum_{i = x,y,z} S_{1i}\otimes S_{2i}$$
Is this obvious? What am I missing here? Usually one neglects to write out the tensor products, so without formality one directly arrives at $\textbf{S}^2 = (\textbf{S}_1+\textbf{S}_2)^2 = \textbf{S}_1^2+\textbf{S}_2^2 + 2\textbf{S}_1\cdot\textbf{S}_2$, but I'd like to see how this "dot product" pops out of the above tensor product.