Why is the spinor wave function of graphene $[e^{-i\theta/2}, e^{i\theta/2}]$? Could it be $[e^{-i\theta/}, 1]$?
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2$\begingroup$ Note that both quantum states are equal up to a global phase factor which has no physical meaning. $\endgroup$– DaniCommented Nov 7, 2012 at 18:56
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Yes.
The first choice is (surprisingly) preferred by many authors, probably due to closer analogy with true spin in 3D, but actually there is no difference in 2D and sometimes the second choice is better.
