I'm trying to understand the connection between the wavefunction and a quantum field, so I wanted to know if my reasoning was in the right track (this is a more mathematical/conceptual approach, and it could be useful for others studying QFT)
Let's consider, for example, a system of N particles in 3D space, and examine the differences between the description by a wavefunction and a quantum field.
Wavefunction
¤ We have a total of 3N arguments (3 for each direction) that characterize the value of the wavefunction in position space $\psi(\vec{x})$
¤ The wavefunction is, mathematically, just a continuous function with (at least) first order derivatives that can satisfy boundary conditions.
¤ Given a definite momentum $\vec{p}$ of one particle, we cannot specify the value of the wavefunction for each point in space (because of the uncertainty principle).
¤ The wavefunction completely describes the evolution of the system and allows the calculation of observables that come from operators applied to it
Quantum field
¤ We have infinite degrees of freedom, so we technically have infinite arguments to describe the system (I'm not sure if this is true or we also have 3N arguments).
¤ The quantum field can be seen as an operator-valued distribution (in terms of creation and anhiquilation operators); each particle corresponds to a Fourier mode of oscillation of the quantum field.
¤ Given a particle with momentum $\vec{p}$ we can specify the value of the field $\phi(x)$ in each point (since we can just do a Fourier transform of a given oscillation mode). Does the uncertainty principle apply here?
¤ The quantum field doesn't describe one particle per-se, but the excitations in each point of some "fluid" that permeates all the space, each excitation corresponding to one possible particle.
Do you think these differences are correct? Should I add anything else?