Following on from my previous question:
Exponential form of Boltzmann Distribution
I am now trying to understand the relationship between the thermodynamic beta and the inverse temperature.
Ignoring the Boltzmann constant for now, consider a system with $N$ particles and $M$ discrete energy levels $E_0, E_1, E_2, \ldots, E_M$. We shall use the notation $f(E_i)$ to denote the probability that a given particle is in energy level $E_i$.
Suppose that the total energy of the system is $E$. Then:
$$ f(E) = \frac{1}{\Omega(E)} $$
where $\Omega(E)$ is the total number of microstates with energy $E$. Why is this true? Because if one particle has all the energy, then all the other particles must be in the energy level $E_0$, and there is only one microstate in which this configuration occurs.
Next:
$$ \log(f(E)) = \log(1/\Omega(E)) = - \log(\Omega(E)) = -S$$
But we know that $f(E)$ is proportional to $e^{-\beta E}$ for some $\beta$, so:
$$ 1/T = \frac{d}{dE} S = - \frac{d}{dE} (-\beta E) = \beta $$
This argument is not quite correct, because I have ignored the constant of proportionality. But can it be made correct?
Also, somewhat unrelated, it would appear from the form of the Boltzmann distribution that for a system with fixed energy $E$ the probability $f(E_i)$ is always non-zero even when $E_i > E$ (though it may be very small). Isn't this a problem?