4
$\begingroup$

The free-particle propagator is given by $$\Delta_F(x-y) = \frac{1}{(2\pi)^4} \int \frac{e^{-ik\cdot(x-y)}}{k^2-m^2+i\epsilon} \, d^4k.$$

In the book Quantum Field Theory, Ryder says that $\Delta_F(x-y)$ has a pole at $k^2=m^2$ (page 203).

However, the pole is actually at $k^2=m^2 - i\epsilon$. Why is the $-i\epsilon$ term not mentioned?

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ This post will certainly help you. $\endgroup$
    – DanielSank
    Commented Aug 25, 2017 at 4:31

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Well I don't have the book, but usually the $i \epsilon$ is added intentionally (and artificially) to address the pole, and bring it off the real axis. Somewhere later in the calculation, you take the limit $\epsilon \rightarrow 0$.

$\endgroup$
2

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.